Exam at Ministry Of Health United Arab Emirates
Dr.K.R.MANSOOR ALI BHMS,MD(Hom),MD(Medicine),PGDPC Approved practitioner,Ministry Of Health,UAE Email : info@similima.com
Guidelines to Candidates No Homoeopathic / Alternative medicine questions are asked in the theory exams, but liberally during interview.A comprehensive and up to date knowledge in Practice of medicine and SPM is necessary. Davidson is the approved text by MOHQuestions are MCQ ( multiple choice questions) type with 4/5 answers. Remember all the answers are more or less similar but only one is similmum. Recently pattern of questions entirely changed.60 MCQ (for 40marks) and 40 short answer type questions( for 60 marks) were asked. Questions are of PG standardLatest investigative procedures and normal biochemical values in International Units are asked for theory and viva. The following documents should be submitted along with the application form: 1. Curriculum Vitae (preferably one page)2. Passport Copy and Three (3) recent passport size colour photographs3. Copy of mark sheets / Transcripts for each year or semester (Authenticated or Certified true copy by the college or a Notary Officer)4. Copy of Internship completion Certificate (Authenticated or Certified true copy by the college or a Notary Officer)5. Copies of Diplomas and Degrees (Authenticated/attested by the Ministry of Higher Education and the UAE Embassy in the country where Degree has been awarded)6. A practical short duration training course certificate is required in any one of the Emergency Care courses such as: Advance Life Support, First Aid Course, or CPR. The training should have been done from an authorized training centre in the UAE or abroad, like Red Crescent Society, Red Cross Society, or any Major Hospitals, etc. (Distant Education Courses and Online internet courses would not be accepted)7.Experience letters/certificates in your field of specialty, including the date of appointment and termination of duties.
Registration Procedure:Registration Fees would be accepted only by E-Dirham, which could be purchased through any of the local banks.Registration would start at 8:00 a.m to 12:00 noon.Only 75 applications would be registered per registration day.Maximum number of seats for each cycle of TCAM examination would be 150 persons.Those who had failed the previous exam can bring their registration slip and register again, for this exam.Note on Incomplete applications:"Incomplete" files are those applications that have one or more of missing documents such as: required attestation, relevant experience certificates, passport copy, etc.For more details, please refer to Examinations Section at the Recruitment Department, First Floor, Ministry of Health, Abu Dhabi.
Experience requirement after completion of internship is a minimum of three years experience in the Alternative Medicine field/specialty for Diploma holders and two years for Bachelor or Master Degree holders
Examinations -Topics for written exams, interviews, and practicals: An examination for a license shall be in writing and oral and if necessary practical.
The written exam shall include testing in a. The basic sciences including but not limited to anatomy, physiology, bacteriology, pathology, hygiene, and chemistry as related to human body or mind. b. The clinical sciences, nutrition, preventive and public health medicine c. Professional ethics and any other subjects that the examining board may deem advisable
Step 1: Multiple Choice Written Examinations The written exam generally consists of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Short-answer-objective type questions and questions based on diagrams/pictures/images depicting medical conditions may be also included in the written exam. MCQs may be structured in such a way that only one answer would be correct, in such a case there would be no negative markings. There may also be MCQs with multiple correct answers. In such a case, there would be negative marking for wrong answers chosen. Instructions for each type of MCQs would be clearly given during the examination time. Indicate you answer by circling the appropriate letter on the question paper and also by filling in the appropriate circle on the computer answer sheet.
Here are a few examples:1.Osteoarthritis, also called……………………., is the most common known joint disorder and the most common cause of joint pain. Rheumatic joint disease Psoriatic joint disease Inflamatory joint disease Degenerative joint disease
2.Which of the following diseases is not typically acquired from animals: Brucelosis Lyme disease Hepatitis A Mad Cow Disease
3.The pain of Mycardial Ischemia: Is typically induced by exercise and relieved by rest Radiates to the neck and jaw but noth the teeth Rarely lasts few seconds Can be treated with Panadol
Directions for marking the computer answer sheet: Use a black lead pencil (2B or HB) so that any mistakes can be erased and changed. Make heavy black marks which fill in the circle completely Erase fully any answer you wish to change. Make no stray marks on the answer sheet. When filling your name, one letter to a box, and fill in the circle with the correspondening letter or number. If there are not enough boxes, stop when you run out of boxes as in the ‘first name’ for example. Your answer sheet is machine read by an optical character reader. The out put is processed by a computer. One mark is given for each correct answer. No marks are deducted for incorrect answers. If more than one answer is filled for a question, no marks would be given.
Interview
Candidates who successfully pass the written examination would be called for interview in their field of specialty. An examination board consisting of professionals from different specialties conducts the interviews. As per needs and requirements, the examination board may invite TCAM professionals from the private sector to assist in conducting the interviews. Successful candidates who have passed both written and oral/practical examinations would then be awarded the license to practice in their field of specialty.
Candidates who are successful in the written component (Step 1), would be asked to attend an oral examination in their field of specialty. For example, Chinese medicine practitioners would be interviwed by Traditional Chinese Medicine examining committee. Likewise other practitioners such as Chiropractors, Homeopaths, Herbalists, etc. would be sent to special interviewing committees. This would be held as soon as possible after Step 1 results are announced. (Usually within a week).Certificate attestation & Submission Your BHMS degree certificate should be attested by embassy of UAE in your country . For this you have to send – Internship certificate, degree certificate, final year mark list, registration certificate ( medical council) and Transcript ( obtained from the university in which you have got BHMS or equivalent certificate ) through an approved Travel agency or directly. Minimum time required for this : 10-18 days Amount required : Rs:600- 1000 You have to submit the application with attested copies your certificates to MOH at Abu Dhabi by hand / through your friends and relatives there. Electronic Dirham 100 should be paid there. Arrange Visa, flight ticket,TA,DA, accommodation at your own risk and expense . A minimum of 10-15 days stay is required. Usually 2 exams are conducted per year. You have only 3 chances to win/attend 80-90% marks in theory is necessary for in attending the interview
Experience : 2 years after Degree or 3 Years after Diploma -You have to appear for an interview in front of a panel of experts with original documents. Dress well preferably in suite .
Certificates/License to practiceFor those who secure higher marks will be awarded Independent Practice Certificate. For others Under the Clinic licence only.If you work hard for a month, it is easy to pass the exams.
Job in UAEAt present no government jobs are available for Alternative medicine people at UAE. But you can earn much from your private practice.
Web site of MOH www.moh.gov.ae RECOMMENDED READINGS In addition to the slandered text books we advice the following books- these are highly useful SARP (C.K.Sinha)- PG medical admission test - for last moment revisionMehta- Practical medicineSalgunan- Post graduate Medical entrance review FORD.M.J -1000 MCQ for Davidson- principles & practice of medicinesSanjay.T - Comprehensive PG Entrnce reviewStudy materials available in http://www.fleshandbones.comStudy materials available in http://www.similima.comStudy materials available in http://www.surgical-tutor.org.ukStudy materials available at http://www.webhealthcentre.com/mcq/postreg.aspRemember- Davidson & Harrison are the most standard text book from which majority of the MCQs are compiledRead at least Harrison Vol.1- you may answer 50% questions
Other Details 1. Who is eligible to sit for C.A.M Practioner’s Examination? a. Alternative Medicine Degree holders (MD in a branch of Alternative Medicine, DC, DO, BHMS, BAMS, BUMS, BAc, BSc Hom, BTCM, etc.) b. Medical Degree holders (MBBS, MBBCh, MD, etc.) having a postgraduate Diploma or Certificate of not less than Two Years full time duration, in any branch of Alternative Medicine, wishing to practice Alternative Medicine only. (Those who wish to practice modern medicine in addition to Alternative medicine should first successfully pass regular MOH, GP Examinations.) c. Allied Health Specialists and Graduates that are recognized by the Health Ministry for example Nurses, Dieticians and Nutritionists, Occupational Therapists and Physiotherapists, having successfully completed a course in a branch of Alternative Medicine, of no less than 3 Years full time duration, from recognized Institutions, would be also considered on individual basis to sit for the examinations. 2. Criteria: a.Diplomas, Degrees or other certificates should be issued from recognized universities or institutions which are authorized by the higher education authorities in a country to award certificates of competence or course completion at the end of the course. b.Correspondence Courses, Distant Learning Certificates, and Certificates from unrecognized institutions shall not be accepted. c.Applicants should be fluent in Arabic and/or English. Written Examinations are in English. d. Internship period should be in a related Alternative Medicine Hospital or Clinic. If no internship was done, then two years of experience equals to One year of internship. e.Years of Study, internship and experience would be calculated as follows : Minimum Duration of full time Alternative Medicine Study Internship Period in Alternative Medicine Alternative Medicine Experience 4 Years For those having only Alternative Medicine Degree. 1 Year 5 Years 3 Years (respectively)For those having an additional Qualification in Allied Health Sciences 6 Months 3 Years 2 Years (respectively) Only for Medical Degree Holders 6 Months 3 Years (respectively)3. Complementary and Alternative Medicine Practitioners: a. Should not use misleading advertisement such as ‘treating or curing’ incurable and terminal cases. b. Should not treat infectious diseases or perform any surgical procedures. c. Are not allowed to prescribe controlled medicines or drugs such as “Prescription Only” medications. d. Are not allowed to administer parenteral solutions, vaccinations, etc. 4. Registration Requirement: 1. Detailed CV in English or Arabic, along with passport copy and three photographs. 2. Copies of Basic Degree, Trascripts, Internship Certificate and Experience Certificates to date. 3. Registration Fee of Dhs. 100
Written Examination would be common for all the Alternative Medicine disciplines. This examination would be Multiple Choice, of not less than two hours duration. Candidates should be familiar with prevalence of common diseases in the UAE and the Gulf and should have adequate knowledge of public health principles, necessary for any General Practice.
Only those passing this examination would be called for interview and practical examination in their field of specialty.
(Examination for other CAM practitioners like Ayurveds, Traditional Chinese Medicine Practitioners and Unani Medicine Practitioners would take place in future Cycles, only after enough number of Ayurvedic, Chinese and Unani Medicines have been registered by the Pharmacy Department of MOH.) Practitioners of non-conventional medicine, should know which conditions and individuals they will be unable to treat successfully and be able to identify when the patient should be directed to medically qualified physicians and specialists. C.A.M practitioners should also be able to recognize contra-indications to their system of therapy. Failure to recognize such signs could result in injury to the patients. It is also particularly very important that Complementary and Alternative practitioners do not countermand instructions or prescriptions given by a medical doctor. For example a C.A.M practitioner may not alter or recommend alteration in dosage of a medicine taken by a patient on advice of a medically qualified doctor.
Pre-Application Form for Candidates interested to apply for Complementary and Alternative Medicine Examination pleas visit MOH website http://www.moh.gov.ae
Prospects of Homoeopathy in UAE
Dr.Abdul Gafar BHMS
Approved Practitioner MOH,UAE
Homoeopathy in UAE is an infant, just born. Never the less it is healthy and very much active, from our first hand experience.
UAE Government approved practice of Homoeopathy in the country in the beginning of 2001. A separate section was established under UAE Ministry of Health (MOH) for Complementary and Alternative Medicines. A qualifying examination is held by MOH about three times a year, and so far 92 Homoeopaths have qualified to practice in UAE.
The MOH examination is of a simple structure but analyze in depth the capacity of the doctors. It consists of two parts. The first, a written examination for 100 marks is a mixture of MCQ and short-answer questions. This is a common test for all the branches of complimentary and alternative medicines like Homoeopathy, Ayurveda, Unani, Acupuncture etc. This is based on General Medicine and the questions are of good standard. Those who clear this examination will be called for an interview, where a panel of experts (Allopathic and Homoeopathic doctors) will judge the capacity of the candidate as a physician. The Homoeopathic knowledge is assessed in this part. The successful doctors will be given an evaluation certificate with register numbers, which is the license to practice Homoeopathy in UAE.
For help in preparing for the examination it is best to have a thorough knowledge in Practice of Medicine based on Davidson’s textbook. For familiarizing with the MCQ it is advisable to go to the questions from www.fleshandbones.com where a number of MCQs are given from Davidson’s as well as questions from US Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE). But remember that your practical knowledge is what counts especially in the interview. One has to submit the application in person at the MOH office in Abu Dhabi with all the documentary evidences (For details visit our website “www.homedpa.com/events.htm”) and the prescribed fee (presently 50 UAE Dirham). The candidates have to bear the travel and other expenses for the trip and also make their own arrangements for their visa. Further clarification about all these can be had at the MOH website “www.moh.gov.ae”. Even though the system got official blessings in UAE very recently, Homoeopathy was never a stranger in the peninsula. Many people there depend on Homoeopathy for their treatment. While some of them bring medicines from their home countries a few go to clandestine (qualified) practitioners for this end.
As all major cities of UAE are cosmopolitan in nature one get people of all walks and classes of life here. So there is never a shortage of supporters to the system. It is reassuring to see that even the labor classes, who can't miss even a day of their work, come to Homoeopathy for their ailments. One another factor is that the common illnesses met with here like UTI, RTI, infertility, Headache and alopecia are all responding wonderfully to the simple medicines. The unique climate and life style being the main culprit, the task of the physician is made much easy.Another welcoming thing is the number of patrons coming up to sponsor Homoeopathic clinics. All the major healthcare establishments have started a Homoeopathic section also along with their institutions. The doctors already cleared by MOH and started their practice here sounded enthusiastic and hopeful about the future. The large Indian population also sounded relieved that at last they could get quality Homoeopathic treatment nearby.
One minor obstacle yet to be overcome is the problem with dispensing medicines. As of now no permission is given to freely dispense the medicines by the physicians. Even if this is of vital importance to successful Homoeopathic practice the doctors here have to depend on sealed bottles of pre-medicated pills of a fixed dose, which is to be dispensed as a whole to the patient. The trouble with this is that often there won’t be the necessity of that much doses of medicine and it will eventually lead to over dosage. Another one being the heavy cost of these sealed bottle preparations, which jeoparadises the very claim of cost effectiveness of the system.
We hope the problems will be solved as the system grows up. Once the results start coming up the system will sustain itself as it has done in many other countries and the obstacles will be melted away one by one.
This article is brought in for the reference of all the doctors who would like to sit for the MOH examination.
Previous Page
1.Question paper : 1
2.Question Paper : 2 (Adobe Acrobat file)
3.Question paper : 3 (Adobe Acrobat file)
4.Question paper : 4 (Adobe Acrobat)
5.Question paper : 5
6.How to prepare for competitive examinations
7.Prospects of Homoeopathy in UAE
8. Exam Schedule 2005
9. Practice Guidelines
10.Evaluation certificate
11. Message from under secretary MOH,UAE
12. Scope of practice, licensure requirements, prohibitions
13.The Hindu. A unique website on articles related to competitive exams, personality development, career guidance, methodology of preparation, preparing CV, tips on interview, campus interview ,tips on reading & learning, effective presentations, mind mapping and lot more..
14.Over seas Contact : 1.Dr. Sassan Behjat Coordinator Traditional, Complementary and Alternative Medicine Unit, Ministry of Health, Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates Tel: (+971 2) 6394 160, 6117 238 Fax: (+971 2) 6313 525 Email : Sbehjat@moh.gov.ae
2. Dr. Anees Fareed BHMS Naif Medical Centre Hossain looth Bldg,Naif Road Deira.P.O.Box 12931.Dubai UAE Ph: 00971504716100 Email : aneesfareed@yahoo.com, aneesfareed@hotmail.com 2.Dr. Abdul Gafar BHMS Al Shaab Clinic 1st Floor, Flat # 02, Above Mignas Jewellery, Opp. Gold Souk Bus Station, Deira, Dubai. P.O.Box # 4157 Ph: +971 4 2269828, Mob: +971 50 4699659, E-mail: uaehomeopath@homeoweb.com
3.Dr. P.Joy .BHMS, GP.Homoeopath, Altaif Medical Centre, DUBAI. Phone :00971503131945 E-mail: drpjoy@yahoo.com
UNITED ARAB EMIRATES. MINISTRY OF HEALTH ABU DHABI Complementary and Alternative Medicine Examination February 6, 2002
Question paper Februay 2002 Time allowed: 2 hours
I. Please complete the following in English: 1) Full Name (Block Letters): ___________________________________ 2) Examination Number: _______________________________________ 3) Signature: _________________________________________________
II. Instructions: 1) This examination paper consists of 9 pages and 100 questions. Please Check that you have all the pages. 2) Write your Examination Number on each page of the question paper, on the top right hand corner. 3) Each question consists of a stem followed by four items identified by A, B, C, and D. There are also some TRUE and FALSE questions. Only one of multiple choices is the most appropriate answer. Select this by encircling the correct letter.
The following are examples: Example 1 Example 2 The most common primary cardiac tumor is : Pericarditis occurs in all of the a following, EXCEP T: A. myxoma A. rheumatic fever B. sarcoma B. tuberculosis C. rhabdomyoma C. pneumonia D. fibroma D. scarlet fever
4) YOU ARE ALSO REQUIRED TO COMPLETE THE COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET SEPARATELY. III. WARNING: 1) It is strictly forbidden for candidates to talk or to attempt to communicate with each other while the examination is in progress. 2) Question papers must not be copied or removed from the examination room.
THE QUESTION PAPER MUST BE RETURNED WITH THE COMPLETED COMPUTER ANSWER SHEET.. 1) Notification is a statutory obligation in the following infections except: A) Food poisoning B) Viral hepatitis C) Measles and rubella D) Laryngitis 2) With regard to travelers’ diarrhoea, which one of the following statements is true: A) No causative organism is identified in 65% of patients B) Most attacks require drug treatment C) Antidiarrhoeal agents are particularly useful in children D) Doxycycline prophylaxis is advised for all travelers’ to sub-Saharan Africa 3) Noteworthy factors in the assessment of pyrexia of unknown origin includes all except: A) History of travel abroad B) Occupational history C) History recent vaccination D) Recent drug therapy 4) The most common condition requiring surgery during the first 2 months of life is: A) Volvulus B) Inguinal hernia C) Intussusception D) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis 5) Legg Calve Perthes disease: A) Is painful B) Is bilateral in 80% of cases C) Is more common in females than in males D) Occurs between the ages of 2 to 12 years (mean age of 7 years) 6) Low serum iron, elevated serum ferritin, and normal iron- binding capacity typically occur in: A) Thalassemia B) Sickle cell anemia C) Iron deficiency anemia D) Anemia of chronic inflammation or infection 7) Which of the following eye disorders is most likely to occur in patients with ankylosing spondylitis? A) Iritis B) Cataract C) Glaucoma D) Conjunctivitis 8) Following recovery from pneumonia, a 46-year - old man develops paralysis of the proximal and distal muscles of the leg, the most likely diagnosis is: A) Syringomyelia B) Multiple sclerosis C) Guillain-Barre syndrome D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 9) Bell's palsy occurs in about 20% of patients with: A) Malaria B) Lyme disease C) Leptospirosis D) Relapsing fever 10) Abdominal pain associated with erythrocyte stippling and footdrop or wristdrop typically occurs in: A) Thalassemia B) Lead poisoning C) Multiple myeloma D) Infectious mononucleosis 11) Breath sounds are increased in: A) Atelectasis B) Pneumothorax C) Both D) Neither 12) Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by decreased: A) Transferrin saturation B) Total iron- binding capacity C) Free erythrocyte protoporphrin D) All of the above 13) The best test for a 15 month old male with recurrent pneumonia due to pseudomonas aeruginosa is: A) sweat test B) Schilling test C) Serum lead levels D) Respiratory function tests. 14) 19 year old sexually ac tive woman presents with right upper quadrant pain due to gonococcal perihepatitis, this is called: A) Mittelschmerz B) Reiter's syndrome C) Leriche's syndrome D) Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome 15) Which of the following tests you would order for a 19 year old female with sore throat and cervical adenopathy? A) Schilling test B) Coombs test C) Schirmer test D) monospot test 16) Anthrax (malignant pustule; woolsorter's disease) is caused by: A) virus B) fungus C) bacteria D) rickettsia 17) Pregnant women should avoid taking: A) Digoxin B) Glyburide C) Ethambutol D) All of the above 18) The most common gynecologic malignancy in a 20-year -old female is: A) Vulvar cancer B) Ovarian cancer C) Cervical cancer D) Endometrial cancer 19) 62 year old woman complains of jaw pain when chewing and diminished vision of her right eye, the most likely diagnosis is: A) Glaucoma B) Temporal arteritis C) Tension headache D) Normal pressure hydrocephalus 20) A14 year old boy is brought to you because of intense itching around his fingers with visible excoriations, the most likely diagnosis is: A) Scabies B) Lymphoma C) Erysipelas D) Sarcoidosis 21) The most likely cause of a bulge behind the knee of a 58 year old woman with long history of arthritis is: A) Hematoma B) Baker's cyst C) Osteosarcoma D) Arteriovenous malformation 22) A child has a midline neck mass that elevates with the protrusion of the tongue, the most likely diagnosis is: A) Cystic hygroma B) Branchial cleft cyst C) Thyroglossal duct cyst D) Cervical lymphadenitis 23) What is the most common cause of intracranial hemorrhage? A) Trauma B) Hypertension C) Coagulopathy D) Arteriovenous malformation 24) Cervical disk herniation is most common at: A) C1- C2 B) C2- C3 C) C4- C5 D) C6- C7 25) Which of the following disorders is most likely to occur in short boys aged 4 to 10 years? A) Congenital hip dysplasia B) Osgood-Schlatter disease C) Legg-Calve-Perthes disease D) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis 26) Reticulocyte count is NOT low in: A) Thalassemia B) Lead poisoning C) Sideroblastic anemia D) Iron deficiency anemia 27) A patient with nephrotic syndrome has white horizontal lines on his nails, this is known as: A) Koilonychia B) Beau's lines C) Terry's nails D) Muehrcke's nails. 28) What test you would order for a 38 year with history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease and diarrhea? A) Sweat test B) Schilling test C) Small bowel biopsy D) Serum gastrin levels 29) Runny nose, sneezing, and coughing in a 2 year old child is most likely due to: A) Croup B) Asthma C) Epiglottitis D) Bronchiolitis 30) Hyperpigmentation, salt craving, postural hypotension, and fasting hypoglycemia aresymptoms of: A) Addison disease B) Diabetes insipi dus C) Cushing syndrome D) Hyperparathyroidism 31) The most common hernia of all ages and both sexes is: A) Femoral hernia B) Umbilical hernia C) Direct inguinal hernia D) Indirect inguinal hernia 32) The most common cause of acute abdomen in children and adolescents is: A) Volvulus B) Pancreatitis C) Peptic ulcer D) Appendicitis 33) 16 year old female breaks up with the boyfriend, cries everyday, and refuses to go back to school, the most likely diagnosis is: A) Conduct disorder B) Major depression C) Conversion disorder D) Adjustment disorder 34) Obesity is a risk factor for: A) Osteoporosis B) Osteoarthritis C) Both D) Neither 35) Estrogen therapy increases the incidence of: A) Osteoporosis B) Ischemic heart disease C) Both D) Neither 36) High parity (multiparity) is a risk factor for: A) Breast cancer B) Cervical cancer C) Endometrial cancer D) All of the above 37) Tetany is associated with: A) Hypocalcemia B) Hypomagnesemia C) Both D) Neither 38) Which of the following values is increased during pregnancy? A) Serum iron B) Serum ferritin C) Iron binding capacity D) All of the above 39) Sudden onset of cyanosis with aphonia and inability to cough in a 2 year old child is most likely due to: A) Croup B) Epiglottitis C) Laryngomalacia D) Foreign body aspiration 40) Labyrinthitis causes: A) Fever B) Ear pain C) Dizziness D) Aural fullness 41) Hutchinson's tr iad of congenital syphilis consists of tooth abnormalities, deafness, and: A) Keratitis B) Hepatitis C) Cholangitis D) Pancreatitis. 42) The most common extracutaneus site of involvement of chickenpox in children is: A) Genitourinary system B) Cardiovascular system C) Central nervous system D) Gastrointestinal system 43) Anterior curvature of the spine is called: A) Lordosis B) Kyphosis C) Scoliosis D) Osteogenesis imperfecta 44) The most likely cause of painless jaundice of one month duration in a 72 year old man is: A) Acute cholangitis B) Acute cholecystitis C) Carcinoma of pancreas D) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome 45) Primary Osteoarthritis is mostly related to: A) Sex B) Hormonal disturbances C) Age D) Occupation 46) Which of the following is NOT a radiological feature of OA? A) Loss of joint space B) Presence of new bone formation or osteophytes C) Cyst formation D) Presence of foreign body in the joint 47) Itch caused by Scabies is often exacerbated at: A) Night B) Morning before noon C) Early morning D) Afternoon 48) …………………………..is usually extremely itchy. The patient presents with excoriated blisters on the elbows, buttocks and knees. A) Xerosis B) Bullous Pemphigoid C) Urticaria D) Dermatitis Herpatiformis 49) Xerosis is a common skin symptom in what age group? A) Below five years old B) Teenagers C) Infants D) Old age 50) Pruritus is often the most bothersome symptom and usually precedes other signs and symptoms of which of the following diseases? A) Diabetes Mellitus B) Cholestatic Liver disease C) Alzheimer Disease D) Migraine 51) Dementia usually follows a: A) Progressively deteriorating condition B) Rapidly improving condition C) Stable condition D) Fluctuating condition 52) Most causes of Dementia are currently: A) Avoidable B) Curable C) Incurable D) Acute 53) The risk of developing dementia is related to: A) Viral infection B) Age and family C) Environmental factors D) Emotional distress 54) Which of the following statements about infective arthritis is true: A) The onset is typically insidious B) Haemophilus influenza is the most common causative organism in adults C) Pre-existing arthritis is a recognized predisposing factor D) Small peripheral joints are involved more often than larger joints 55) Polyarthrlagia is NOT a common presenting complaint in: A) Rubella B) Depression C) Juvenile Diabetes D) Metabolic bone disease. 56) Which of the following disorders does not usually produce signs and symptoms in the joints: A) Lyme disease B) Acromegaly C) Chronic sarcoidosis D) Benign Prostate Hyperplasia 57) Shoulder pain is NOT a recognized feature of: A) Myocardial Ischaemia B) Supra spinatus Tendonitis C) Scleritis D) Cervical spondylosis 58) Osteoarthritis is: A) Evident radiologically in at least 80% of patients > 65 years old B) More likely to be generalized and severe in males C) Best managed with anti-inflammatory doses of NSAIDs D) Related to bronchial Carcinoma 59) In a patient with neck pain: A) Aggravation by sneezing suggests cervical disc prolapse B) Associated bilateral arm paresthesiae suggests angina pectoris C) Otherwise normal joints, rheumatoid arthritis is excluded as a possible diagnosis D) Antinuclear antibodies are characteristically absent 60) The clinical features of Gout exclude: A) Cellulitis, tensosynovitis and bursitis B) The abrupt onset of severe joint pain at tenderness C) Serum urate levels fall during the attack D) Loin pain and haematuria 61) Which is the most common bacterial cause of community acquired pneumonia? A) Streptococcus Pneumoniae B) Herpes Simplex C) Cytomegalovirus D) Salmonella 62) Finger clubbing is a typical finding in: A) Chronic bronchitis B) Bronchiectasis C) Fever D) Functional dyspepsia 63) …………………………is usually spread via the faecal-oral route: A) Hepatitis B B) Cholera C) TB D) Atopic Dermatitis 64) In which of the followi ng infections notification to Health authorities is not necessary: A) Food poisoning B) Viral Hepatitis C) Measles and Rubella D) Mild tonsillitis 65) Sexually transmissible viral disease include: A) Hepatitis A, B and C B) Influenza C) Brucellosis D) Myocarditis 66) For treatment of Tetanus the best management would be: A) Washing of the wound with horse urine B) Administration of human antitetanus immunoglobuline C) Physiotherapy of the stiffness D) Wound should be left alone to heal naturally 67) Which of the following is not a recognized complication of heart failure? A) Hyponatraemia B) Sudden death C) Impaired LFT D) Anaemia 68) Which of the following therapies does not improve the long term prognosis after myocardial infarction? A) Aspirin B) ACE inhibitor C) B blockers D) Mint tea infusions 69) The diagnosis of peptic ulcer is best made with A) Endoscopy B) Barium Meal X Ray C) Plain X Ray D) Coating of tongue. 70) One of the main causes of Oliguria is: A) Diabetes Mellitus B) Addison’s disease C) Decreased Renal Perfusion D) Chronic hyperglycemia 71) Pneumaturia is the………………. A) Passage of casts in urine B) Passage of gas in urine C) Passage of epithelial cells in urine D) Passage of RBCs in urine 72) In adults the most frequent diagnosis of primary tumors of the anterior mediastinum is: A) Germ Cell neoplasms B) Lymphomas C) Endocrine tumors D) Thymic lesions (cysts, hyperplasia,thymoma) 73) Carcinoma of stomach is most likely to metastasize to: A) Liver B) Peritoneum C) Lungs D) Bone 74) In investigating a patient for possible hepatocellular carcinoma, the best tumor marker would be: A) Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin B) Alkaline Phosphatase C) a-fetoprotein D) S-100 antigen 75) Which of the following features is most characteristic of non-insulin- dependent, type II Diabetes? A) Obese body weight B) Age on onset usually under 30 C) Ketosis is common D) History of smoking 76) A 60-year-old woman has a three-month continuous history of morning stiffness, and pain and swelling of the second and third metacarpalphalangeal joints of both hands. The best diagnosis is: A) Definite Rheumatoid Arthritis B) Possible scleroderma C) Definite Osteoarthritis D) Classic psoriatic arthritis 77) A 28-year-old man presents to your clinic with two-hour history of chest tightness, coughing, and wheezing. The history determines that he has had many such attacks in recent years, usually brought on by emotional factors or exertion, and generally treatable by self-medication at home. There is a longhistory of hay fever and other members of the familyhave similar symptoms. Physical examination reveals dyspnoea, orthopnea, and cyanosis. High-pitched sibilant rhonchi occur on inspiration and ex piration and some coarse crepitations are audible. Pulse is 130/min and regular. Coughing produces viscid sputum. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Right heart failure B) Left heart failure C) Asthma D) Pneumonoconiosis 78) Precipitating factors in this patient’s (question 77) condition include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Exposure to antigen B) Salt ingestion C) Excitement D) Irritants 79) Pulmonary function studies during an acute attack (ref. to question 77) are most likely to show: A) Decreased FEV1 B) Increased vital capacity C) Decreased residual volume D) Increased arterial PO2 80) A 28 year old woman presents to your clinic with a history of diarrhea and crampy abdominal pain. In retrospect, the attacks have been increasing in frequency and severity for the past three years, so that there are now at least ten bowel movements per day. She has lost 10% of her body weight in the past year. On examination, she is a thin woman in acute distress from abdominal cramps. A boggy mass can be palpated in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, associated with marked tenderness, but nor guarding. Examination of the anal area reveals an apparent perianal fistula.. X-ray of the GI system are taken and on review show that a barium enema is essentially normal. An upper GI series shows a normal esophagus and stomach, but there are several areas of stenosis in the ileum separated by normal bowel. A mass of adherent loops of ileum with evidence of fistulous connections between several loops. The most likely diagnosis of this patient is: A) Ulcerative colitis B) Crohn’s disease C) Acute appendicitis D) Carcinoma of the small bowel 81) The above (question 80) long standing disease may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A) Pyelonephritis B) Polyarthritis C) Emotional instability D) Respiratory failure 82) The most common complication of chickenpox in children is: A) Pneumonia B) Cystitis C) Secondary bacterial skin infection D) Encephalitis 83) Which statement is true concerning Hodgkin’s disease? A) The peak incidence is between 15 and 34 years of age B) The most common presenting finding is enlargement of cervical lymph nodes C) More than 90% of patients initially achieve a complete clinical remission D) All of the above 84) With regard to mortality in relation to smoking which of the following is NOT correct? A) Current male cigarette smokers have a 70% greater chance of dying from disease than non smokers B) Specific mortality ratios are directly proportional to the amount smoked and the years of cigarette smoking C) Mortality ratios are also higher for those who initiated their smoking at younger ages D) Former cigarette smokers carry their increased mortality rate with them after they stop smoking. 85) With regard to smoking and cancer of the lungs which of the following is NOT correct? A) The most definite causal relationship between the use of tobacco and any disease is with lung cancer B) The use of filter cigarettes with low tar and nicotine content decreases lung cancer mortality C) Smokers experience decrease in lung cancer mortality rates, which approaches the rate of nonsmokers, after 10 or 15 years of cessation. D) Cancer of the lungs has become the leading cause of cancer deaths in women in the past decade 86) Vitamin C increases iron absorption: A) True B) False 87) Iron deficiency in infancy may cause impaired psychomotor development A) True B) False 88) Iron deficiency is more common in late childhood than adolescence A) True B) False 89) In older patients, a recurrent chalazion in the same location should prompt referral A) True B) False 90) Upper eyelid swellings in a child should raise suspicion of a dermoid A) True B) False 91) Bacterial conjunctivitis generally has a watery discharge. A) True B) False 92) Glaucoma generally produces significant purulent discharge A) True B) False 93) Enuresis, thirst, weight loss and a tiredness that has withdrawn a child from usual play and activities should alert you to diabetes A) True B) False 94) All childhood diabetes is due to type I diabetes A) True B) False 95) Sensitivity to the house dust mite is associated with an increased risk for current asthma A) True B) False 96) An indoor domestic pet could be suggestive of an allergic trigger in a person with chronic asthma A) True B) False 97) Ulcerative colitis typically causes abdominal pain A) True B) False 98) A delayed release preparation of fish oil has been shown to prolong the remission of Crohn’s disease A) True B) False 99) Pruritus of cholestatic liver disease generally appears on the abdomen A) True B) False 100) Solar keratoses are indicators of cumulative sun exposure A) True B) False
Exam at Ministry Of Health United Arab Emirates
Step 1: Multiple Choice Written Examinations The written exam generally consists of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Short-answer-objective type questions and questions based on diagrams/pictures/images depicting medical conditions may be also included in the written exam. MCQs may be structured in such a way that only one answer would be correct, in such a case there would be no negative markings. There may also be MCQs with multiple correct answers. In such a case, there would be negative marking for wrong answers chosen. Instructions for each type of MCQs would be clearly given during the examination time. Indicate you answer by circling the appropriate letter on the question paper and also by filling in the appropriate circle on the computer answer sheet.
Here are a few examples:1.Osteoarthritis, also called……………………., is the most common known joint disorder and the most common cause of joint pain. Rheumatic joint disease Psoriatic joint disease Inflamatory joint disease Degenerative joint disease
2.Which of the following diseases is not typically acquired from animals: Brucelosis Lyme disease Hepatitis A Mad Cow Disease
3.The pain of Mycardial Ischemia: Is typically induced by exercise and relieved by rest Radiates to the neck and jaw but noth the teeth Rarely lasts few seconds Can be treated with Panadol
4.Which of the following is not among the signs of squamous cell carcinoma developing in a solar Keratosis? Induration Fissuring Itch Slow growth
5.A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, constipation, and weight gain. There is no prior history of neck surgery or radiation. Her voice is hoarse and her skin is dry. Serum is elevated and T4 is low. The most likely cause of these findings is: A. Autoimmune disease B. Pituitary hypofunction C. Thyroid carcinoma D. Viral infection of thyroid 6.Which one of the following statements about lifestyle modifications in patients with hypertension is correct A. Excess dietary sodium may decrease the antihypertensive effects of medications, but it does not alter their effect on proteinuria B. Although the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension diet is recommended by clinical guidelines, its effectiveness has not been verified in research trials C. Weight loss and exercise may improve glycemic control and insulin sensitivity in diabetic patients. D. Diabetic patients should begin lifestyle modifications when hypertension is diagnosed 7. Measles is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT: A. BronchitisB. PhotophobiaC. Rash peaks as the fever falls D. Rash which appears first on face 8. A 45 year old executive who is a heavy smoker, had severe retrosternal discomfort while going to the toilet at 7.00 a.m. ECG done immediately showed ST segment elevation in inferior leads which normalized within an hour. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Prinzmetal’s angina C. Acute pericarditis D. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta 9. Which is NOT among common causes of secondary hyperlipidaemia: A. HyperthyroidismB. Diabetes MellitusC. Alcohol Abuse D. Estrogen Replacement therapy Directions for marking the computer answer sheet: Use a black lead pencil (2B or HB) so that any mistakes can be erased and changed. Make heavy black marks which fill in the circle completely Erase fully any answer you wish to change. Make no stray marks on the answer sheet. When filling your name, one letter to a box, and fill in the circle with the correspondening letter or number. If there are not enough boxes, stop when you run out of boxes as in the ‘first name’ for example. Your answer sheet is machine read by an optical character reader. The out put is processed by a computer. One mark is given for each correct answer. No marks are deducted for incorrect answers. If more than one answer is filled for a question, no marks would be given.
How to prepare for competitive ExaminationsDr.K.R.Mansoor Ali BHMS.MD(Hom),PGDPCApproved practitioner MOH,UAEWeb : www.similima.com Email : info@similima.com
In order to succeed you must know what you are doing, like what you are doing, and believe in what you are doing- Will Rogers .This work is meant for the serious students of Homeopathy and to those who are preparing for competitive exams. The work has been made with the purpose of helping the students who my wish to make themselves familiar with competitive examinations like MD(Hom) entrance, PSC,UPSC,MOH(UAE) etc . I make no pretence that this work is either complete or final. My aim is to stimulate the students to make their own ideas and observations.
Multiple Choice QuestionsMultiple choice questions are widely used for examination purposes and are reliable and accurate in evaluation also comparing to descriptive mode. Lack of familiarity with MCQ may result in unexpected failure but at the same time adequate reading, understanding and systemic study of subject is highly essential. Students preparing for competitive examinations are recommended to read the appropriate chapters from the text books and then to asses themselves using the MCQs. Try to record your reasoning before checking the correct answer.Many of the MCQs at any entrance examinations have been repeated (about 35%) in same or altered form, so a candidate who revised the previous year’s questions had a definite advantage over a candidate who had not. Text booksReading previous years MCQ's will help to a certain extent, but this is not the sole method of preparation advisable. If the question paper setter is an expert he will never take questions from guide but from standard text book. Read Textbooks thoroughly. This is a must for every aspirant. One can get the basic concept only through the textbooks. Select the book which provides genuine materials picked up from the standard text books. Time managementSelf assessment is an important part in the preparation. Practice as many Mock Tests as possible in close to examination environment as possible. Because time management is very important. You have to answer for a large number of questions with in a short time. For example as per Kerala MD entrance pattern you will get only 24 seconds for answering one question.Remember Questions can be asked from every nook and corner of the subject and therefore it is not at all advisable to omit any chapter or area. Because even a single wrong answer could cost you a prestigious postgraduate seat. Since seats are very less for post graduation comparing to graduation.GuessingYou can guess if you are able to narrow down the answers to two, otherwise not. Beware of negative marksDuring preparationAvoid heavy oily food just before exam – your brain will concentrate on digestion not on your question paper.Take more vegetables & fresh water – like green leaves, carrots etc. which will decrease your eyestrain and sharpen your memory.Avoid smoking, excess tea & drinks- Many of us have a belief that smoking, black tea etc. will stimulate our brain so that we can able to study for a long time – but these will definitely decrease your energy, and you will become tired with in short time. Sleep deprivation will result in decreased mental alertness – Many of the students will prepare thoroughly before the exam, but in the last night-night before the exam, they avoid sleep and try to revise the whole topic. This will definitely decrease their mental alertness and they are unable to grasp the questions. So go to bed early in the night before exam.Recommended books There are many books available in the market, but the following books are more comprehensive with essential and quality materials and their authors adopted a novel way in presenting the matter. This will help the students to remember the facts and conceptualize the topic. Moreover important information about some topics is given in the form of charts and boxes for ready reference. A comprehensive and up-to-date knowledge on all the 12 subjects of BHMS syllabus are essential. In addition to the standard text books (which are of top priority) - these books provide a comprehensive outline to the essential content of the subject with summaries and tables. Salgunan - Review of PG Entrance examinations- this book contains about 20000 MCQs from previous entrance examinations from 28 years Ford.M.J - 1000 MCQ to Davidson – based on Davidson’s practice of medicineC.K.Sinha(SARP)- Self study guide of PG entrance- 1st book in SARP seriesSanjay.T- Comprehensive PG Entrance review (PARAS medical publisher)Sreenivaslu- Quick review for PG Entrance test (PARAS medical publisher)Remember- Davidson & Harrison are the most standard text book from which majority of the MCQs are compiled. Read at least Harrison Vol.1- you can able to answer more than 50% questions.Try to purchase the latest edition of these books, since medicine is an ever changing science and confirm any doubts with standard text books since few mistakes are there in majority of the booksHomoeopathic books Sangar.R.P - Prescriber to Allen's Keynotes- this book is based on Allen’s key note. Remember in any of the competitive examinations on materia medica majority of the questions are from Allen’s keynote, then Boerick’s materia medicaEswara das- Solved questions in Organon, a small book with lot of informationNiranjan Mohanty- Learning Homoeopathy through Objective type questionsPatil.J.D - MCQs in Homoeopathy Rajesh.M.Patni : MCQ in Materia Medica Patil & Thombre- Gems of MCQ series R.P.Patel- Art of case taking & RepertoryDr.Manoj Kumar Singh- 4000 MCQs in homoeopathyOnline support Now days many of the question paper setters are taking questions from websites. You can download these questions with answers on various subjects free of cost.Study materials (MCQ) available in http://www.fleshandbones.com – A website based on Davidson’s practice of medicine. MCQs and descriptive questions based on all the chapters of Davidson’s practice of medicine are available in this site.Study materials (MCQ) available in http://www.similima.com - This is the largest portal on homoeopathic education & research developed by postgraduate homeopaths which provide online coaching for PSC,UPSC,MOH(UAE) and MD(Hom) entrance examinations.Study materials (MCQ) available in http://www.surgical-tutor.org.uk
Study materials (MCQ) available at http://www.webhealthcentre.com/mcq/postreg.asp - Thousands of MCQs, Online Tests, Study Material etc. for medical students preparing for P.G Exams. A vast database of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on the various Exam subjects. Information on Forthcoming Exams. A list of Medical Text Books and Study Guides to help you with your preparation. Model Question Papers based on the actual Exam pattern (MSN passport is required).
Study materials available at http://www.aippg.com - the premier Postgraduate Entrance / PLAB / USMLE / MRCP /IELTS resource online.
Suggested textbooks for study Text book of Pharmacy - Mondel & MondelLectures on Philosophy- Kent,Dudgeon,B.K.Sarkar,Hahnemann,S.Close etc..Repertory by Kent,Boenninghausen and Boger.Text Book of Anatomy :Chaurasia. Biochemistry - Harper's Textbook of Biochemistry. Physiology - Guytons TextBook of Human Physiology. Microbiology - Panickers Text Book of Microbiology. Chatterjee's Text Book of Parasitology. Forensic Medicine - Narayana Reddy's. Pathology - Robbin's & Kumar's Textbook of Pathology.Mehta - Practical medicine Medicine - Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine. Davidson's Text Book of Medicine. Preventive and Social Medicine - Park and Park's . Pediatrics - O.P.Ghai's Essential Paediatrics. Surgery - Bailey and Lowe's Short Practice of Surgery. Text Book of Gynaecology :Bhaskara Rao. Obstetrics - Text Book of Obstetrics by Mudaliar. & Menon Radiology - Sutton's Textbook of Radiology. Scheme of Examination (Kerala)There shall be two papers each of two hours duration, consisting of 'Objective type' questions. Paper I will consist of Pre-clinical and Para-clinical subjects and Paper II will consist of Clinical Subjects. Four marks for each correct answer and one mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The Number of Questions in each subject will be as shown below: Paper.I No. of questions Paper.II No. of questions 1.Anatomy 6 1. Medicine 102.Physiology 6 2. T.B& Chest Diseases 23.Biochemistry 6 3. Surgery 104. Biophysics -- 4. Paediatrics 55. Pharmacology 8 5. Obstetrics & Gynaecology 106. Pathology 5 6. Ophthalmology 57. Microbiology 5 7. Orthopaedics 38. Forensic Medicine 7 8. E.N.T. 49. Community Medicine 7 9. Anaesthesia 110. Materia Medica 30 10. Dermatology 511. Homoeopathic Philosophy 40 11. Psychiatry 612. Repertory 30 12. Radiotherapy 1 13. Radiodiagnosis 3 Total 150 14. Materia Medica 3015. Homoeopathic Philosophy 30 30 16. Repertory 25 Total 150 PlanningPlan your studies at least 2 months prior to exam - this is the most important aspect towards securing a good rank. The plan should ideally be drafted up to 2 months prior to the date of examination; thereafter a revised schedule might be put into operation. Prepare a simple timetable with sufficient time for each subject. Make notes in a separate paper in abbreviated form (a must). It will considerably shorten the revision time & improve your memory. This proves very useful while revising the textbook also. Use different colored pencil or pen for marking tricky confusing questions. Group discussion is also an important factor in preparation. One among you asks questions in haphazard/ rapid manner and others try to answer. This will quicken or sharpen your memory and reflexes. But not conceal any points for fear of others knowing it. Our memory We may forget 75% of topics with in first 48 hours So try to read the same topic 2-3 times with in 2 days - other wise you will not be able to remember majority of the points.Last moment revisionIt pertains to the last three days before the examination. Relax the schedule's bit, try recapitulating the information, and revise the matter which you couldn't recollect. Revise the easily forgettable information like Biochemical values, aphorisms, observations etc.Read the notes you prepared in abbreviated form.Read carefully the Last moment revisions available under various sections in http://www.similima.com Avoid anxiety & jealousyIt is very difficult to comprehend and concentrate if you are over anxious.If you are jealous towards your friend and classmates on competitive exams- it will create turmoil in your brain – so you are unable to concentrate. Make preparation - a thrilling experience Remember the famous words of swami Chinmayananda : “ You cannot get into the ocean without getting wet, you cannot get into the fire with out getting hot”.
Exam at Ministry Of Health United Arab EmiratesExam schedule 2005
No.
File Receiving Dates
Date for Payment & Exam Registration
Written Exam Date
Interview Date
1.
Saturday 05/02/05 and Monday 07/02/05
Saturday 05/02/05 and Monday 07/02/05
12/02/05
TBA (Usually within 10 days after publication of Written Exam Results)
2.
1- 5 June 2005
1 - 5 June 2005
8th June 2005
TBA (Usually within 10 days after publication of Written Exam Results)
3.
14 - 18 September 2005
14 - 18 September 2005
21 September 2005
TBA (Usually within 10 days after publication of Written Exam Results)
4.
17 -19 December 2005
17 -19 December 2005
21 December 2005
TBA (Usually within 10 days after publication of Written Exam Results)
Please Note:Exam Registration would be taking place in Abu Dhabi, Ministry of Health, First Floor, Examinations and Evaluations Unit. Tel. No. 02-6117 252Address: Ministry of Health, National Bank of Bahrain Building, Hamdan Street, Abu Dhabi.
Evaluation certificates
Evaluation Certificates are necessary for applying for license to Practice TCAM in Private or Government SectorAll those who have passed successfully the TCAM examination, should make sure that they have provided the following documents. (Any missing papers or documents would delay the issue of Evaluation Certificate).
1. Curriculum Vitae2. Passport Copy3. Copy of mark sheets / Transcripts (Certified true copy)4. Copy of Internship completion Certificate (Certified true copy)5. Copies of Diplomas and Degrees (Authenticated/attested by UAE Embassy in the country where Degree awarded)6. Experience letters or certificates in your field of specialty (on original letterhead) including the date of appointment and termination of duties.7. One recent passport size color photograph
Please fill up the Yellow form for TCAM Candidates and double check whether you have submitted all the documents. This form is necessary for evaluation and it is available from First Floor, Recruitment Section, Ministry of Health in Abu Dhabi. Incomplete files would not be evaluated.Please make sure your file is complete for submission to Evaluation Committee.
1.Evaluation list No 1
2. Evaluation list No 2
3. Evaluation list No 3
4. Evaluation List 1 / 2003
5. Evaluation List 2 / 2003
6. Evaluation List 3 / 2003
7. Evaluation List 4 / 2003
8. Evaluation List 5 / 2003
9. Evaluation List 1 / 2004
10. Evaluation List 2 / 2004
11. Evaluation List 3 / 2004
12 Evaluation List 4 / 2004
13. Evaluation List 5 / 2004
14 Evaluation List 6 / 2004 Courtesy : http://www.moh.gov.ae
Message from the Undersecretary, Ministry of Health.UAE H.E. Dr. Abdul Rahim Jaafar
The establishment of Zayed Complex for Herbal Research and Traditional Medicine by the order of His Highness Sheikh Zayed Bin Sultan Al Nahyan has been an important mile stone in promotion of scientific research on medicinal herbs in the UAE and integration of Traditional Medicine treatment protocols for chronic ailments. There has also been an increased demand for other Natural and Alternative therapies in the UAE following such trends in Europe and North America. Several studies published in reputable medical journals have shown that alternative therapies are being sought in an increasing demand for chronic conditions including back problems, allergic conditions, anxiety, and headaches. The Ministry of Health is interested to know how these therapies are being developed and how they could be regulated for the safety of the public. Observing these trends for the past couple of years, has lead to the creation of a legal mandate that would provide for the official recognition of Alternative Medicine practitioners and maintaining of minimum standard of quality. The Office of Complementary and Alternative Medicine at the Ministry of Health has been being given the task of collecting information, ideas and comments from medical and scientific literature, health care professionals and those interested in this field, so that gradually a valid and reliable data-base would be established to assist the Ministry in formulation of regulations and maintenance of high standards of Alternative Medicine care. What is T.C.A.M?It has become increasingly clear, both to the medical establishment and the general public that complementary forms of medicine and therapies contribute to health care system. It has also become obvious that no one system of medicine has the complete answer to all our health care requirements. We need to be aware of the value and efficacy of the various types of treatments, be they conventional or those that we have come to know as ‘alternative’ or ‘complementary’. Non-conventional therapies also referred to as integrative medicine—include a broad range of healing philosophies, approaches, and therapies. A therapy is generally called ‘complementary’ when it is used in addition to conventional treatments; it is often called alternative when it is used instead of conventional treatment. Depending on how they are used, some therapies can be considered either complementary or alternative. Complementary and alternative therapies are used in an effort to prevent illness, reduce stress, prevent or reduce side effects and symptoms, or control or cure disease. Some commonly used methods of complementary or alternative therapy include mind/body control interventions such as visualization or relaxation; manual healing including Chiropractic, Osteopathy, acupressure and massage; homeopathy; vitamins and herbal products; Traditional Chinese Medicine and acupuncture, as well as Indian System of Medicine (Ayurveda)
Scope of Practice Licensure requirements, scope of practice, and prohibitions Courtesy : http://www.moh.gov.ae
A. Introduction As a result of increasing interest in and use of Traditional, Complementary, and Alternative Medicine (TCAM) therapies in medical practices and as a necessary function of its duty to protect the public interest, the UAE Ministry of Health requires all TCAM physicians and practitioners to comply with professional, ethical and practice standards, and act as responsible agents for their patients.
The following guidelines assists in educating and regulating: (1) TCAM practitioners who may work independently and (2) Those TCAM practitioners who co-manage patients with licensed Medical practitioners in clinics or polyclinics and hospitals
This document focuses on encouraging the medical community to adopt consistent standards, ensuring the public health and safety by facilitating the proper and effective use of TCAM treatments, while educating physicians on the adequate safeguards needed to assure these services are provided within the bounds of acceptable professional practice
B. Licensing: In exercising its licensing authority the Ministry of Health has the inherent power to determine precisely the qualifications a TCAM applicant must possess. It may investigate educational credentials, professional competence, and moral character. The applicant bears the burden to prove his fulfillment of all requirements for licensure.
The practice of medicine consists of the ethical application of a body of knowledge, principles and methods known as medical science and that these objective standards are the basis of medical licensure for physicians and TCAM practitioners. Therefore no person shall practice TCAM in the UAE without first being licensed by the Ministry of Health. Successfully passing TCAM qualifying examination is a precondition for evaluation and grant of TCAM practice license.
Following is a list of M.O.H recognized TCAM specialties: Herbal Medicine Traditional Islamic Medicine (Unani) Traditional Chinese Medicine Traditional Indian Medicine (Ayurveda and Siddha) Homeopathic Medicine Naturopathy Chiropractic Medicine Osteopathy D. Eligible qualifications for TCAM Examinations: 1. Examples of Masters level Courses (Usually 2 years Post Graduation): Member of Faculty of Homeopathy (M. F. Hom. from Faculty of Homeopathy, UK) or equivalent Doctor of Medicine in Homeopathy (MD in Homeopathy) or equivalent Doctor of Medicine in Ayurvedic Medicine (MD in Ayurvedic Medicine) or equivalent Doctor of Medicine in Unani Medicine (MD in Unani Medicine) or equivalent Doctor of Medicine in Traditional Chinese Medicine (MD or Masters in TCM)
2. Examples of Bachelor level Courses (Usually 4 to 5 ½ Years College Level Education): Doctor of Chiropractic Medicine (DC) or equivalent Doctor of Naturopathy (ND) or equivalent Bachelor of Naturopathy and Yogic Sciences (BNYS) Bachelor in Homeopathic Medicine and Surgery (BHMS) Bachelor in Ayurvedic Medicine and Surgery (BAMS) Bachelor in Siddha Medicine and Surgery (BSMS) Bachelor in Unani Medicine and Surgery (BUMS) Bachelor in Osteopathy Bachelor in Traditional Chinese Medicine 3. Examples of Diploma Level Courses (Usually 3 to 4 years College Level Education): Diploma in Naturopathy Diploma in Homeopathy Diploma in Osteopathy Diploma in Acupuncture Diploma in Herbal Medicine Practice Category: The educational qualifications, depth and field of experience, and results of the TCAM examinations and recommendations from examination board would be considered for evaluating the candidates and the category for their practice. The evaluation committee may permit the following two categories of TCAM practice privileges on the licenses: 1. Independent TCAM practice category: Usually TCAM practitioners, who have basic medical degrees or MD level qualifications in TCAM specialties or those who have extensive proven experience and/or as per recommendations of the examination board, may be awarded independent TCAM practice. These practitioners may start their own clinics or treatment centers and may employ other supporting staff like nurses, technicians and even other TCAM specialists, as per their needs and requirements. 2. Under Clinic License category: These practitioners would be permitted to work only in an established polyclinic or clinic where a licensed Medical General Practitioner is on duty. Based on the policy or decision of the management of the clinic, these TCAM practitioners may see patients directly or after referral from the resident Medical G.P. Good TCAM care 1.Physicians, indeed all health-care professionals, have a duty not only to avoid harm but also a positive duty to do good— that is, to act in the patient’s best interest[s]. This duty of beneficence takes precedence over any self-interest. Furthermore, patients have a right to seek any kind of care for their health problems. It is recognized that a full and frank discussion of the risks and benefits of all medical practices is in the patient’s best interest. 2.There are varying degrees of potential patient harm that can result from either conventional medical practices or TCAM: 3.Economic harm, which results in monetary loss but presents no health hazard; 4.Indirect harm, which results in a delay of appropriate treatment, or in unreasonable expectations that discourage patients and their families from accepting and dealing effectively with their medical conditions; 5.Direct harm, which results in adverse patient outcome. TCAM practitioners are responsible for practicing good medicine by complying with professional standards and regulatory mandates. In consideration of the above potential harms, the Ministry of Health will evaluate whether or not a TCAM practitioner is practicing appropriate practice by considering the following practice criteria.
Is the licensed TCAM practitioner using a treatment that is: Effective and safe? (Having adequate scientific evidence of efficacy and/or safety or greater safety than other established treatment models for the same condition) Effective, but with some real or potential danger? (Having evidence of efficacy, but also of adverse side effects) Inadequately studied, but safe? (Having insufficient evidence of clinical efficacy, but reasonable evidence to suggest relative safety) Ineffective and dangerous? (Proven to be ineffective or unsafe through controlled trials or documented evidence or as measured by a risk/benefit assessment)
Good TCAM care must include: An adequate assessment of the patient’s condition, based on history, clinical sign and symptoms and if necessary an appropriate examination
1) Evaluation of Patient Prior to offering any TCAM treatments, the TCAM practitioners shall conduct an appropriate medical history and physical examination of the patient as well as an appropriate review of the patient’s medical records. This evaluation shall include, but not be limited to, conventional methods of diagnosis and may include other methods of diagnosis as long as the methodology utilized for diagnosis is based upon the same standards of safety and reliability as conventional methods, and shall be documented in the patient’s medical record. 2) Documentation of Medical Records The TCAM practitioners should keep accurate and complete records to include: (a) The medical history and physical examination; (b) Diagnostic, therapeutic and laboratory results; (c) Results of evaluations, consultations and referrals; (d) Treatment objectives; (e) Discussion of risks and benefits; (f) Appropriate informed consent; (g) Treatments; (h) Medications (including date, type, dosage and quantity prescribed); (i) Instructions and agreements; (j) Periodic reviews Records should remain current and be maintained in an accessible manner, and readily available for review. 3) Treatment Plan The TCAM practitioner may offer the patient TCAM treatment pursuant to a documented treatment plan tailored to the individual needs of the patient by which treatment progress or success can be evaluated with stated objectives, such as pain relief and/or improved physical and/or psychosocial function. Such a documented treatment plan shall consider pertinent medical history, previous medical records and physical examination, as well as the need for further testing, consultations, referrals, or the use of other treatment modalities. The treatment offered should: i) Have a favorable risk/benefit ratio compared to other treatments for the same condition; ii) Be based upon a reasonable expectation that it will result in a favorable patient outcome, including preventive practices; iii) Be based upon the expectation that a greater benefit will be achieved than that, which can be expected with no treatment. 4) Consultations and/or referral to M.O.H licensed Medical General Practitioners and Specialists The TCAM practitioners may refer patients as necessary for additional evaluation and treatment in order to achieve treatment objectives. However, the Medical G.P or Specialist is responsible for monitoring the results and should schedule periodic reviews to ensure progress is being achieved. 5) Clinical Investigations As expected of those physicians using conventional medical practices, physicians providing TCAM therapies while engaged in the clinical investigation of new drugs and procedures are obligated to maintain their ethical and professional responsibilities. Investigators shall be expected to conform to the following ethical standards: i) Clinical investigations should be part of a systematic program competently designed, under accepted standards of scientific research, to produce data, which are scientifically valid and significant. ii) A clinical investigator should demonstrate the same concern and caution for the welfare, safety, and comfort of the patient involved as is required of a physician who is furnishing medical care to a patient independent of any clinical investigation. iii) Furthermore, investigators shall abide by all M.O.H. guidelines and safeguards, to ensure the risks to the patient are as low as possible and are worth any potential benefits. In providing TCAM therapies, practitioners must: 1) Recognize and work within the limits of their professional competence 2) Be willing to consult allopathic and alternative medicine colleagues 3) Be competent when making diagnosis and when giving or arranging treatment 4) Keep clear, accurate and contemporaneous patient records which report the relevant clinical findings, the decisions made, the information given to patients and any drugs, regimen or treatment prescribed. 5) Keep colleagues well informed when sharing the care of patients 6) Pay due regard to efficacy and use of resources 7) Prescribe only the treatment, drugs or appliances that serve the patient’s needs. G. Prohibitions and restrictions: TCAM practitioners are prohibited from: i. Carrying out procedures not related to their specialty, including performing operations ii. Administering injections, parenteral solutions and vaccinations iii. Practicing midwifery iv. Withdrawing blood v. Claiming or offering to treat cancer vi. Treating infectious, communicable diseases vii. Performing internal examinations viii. Prescribing controlled medicines or drugs such as “Prescription Only” medications ix. Sale of medicines, goods, or health related products from their clinics or treatment centers. Grounds for discipline These may include the following: i. Advertising that is false or misleading or that claims the cure of any condition or disease ii. Alcohol or drug dependency iii. Fraudulent procurement of a license iv. Failure to cooperate with a medical licensing committee investigation v. Participation or involvement in a criminal abortion vi. Sexual advances toward or involvement with patients vii. Sales of medical certificates viii. Charging a patient for services not rendered ix. False or inaccurate patient records x. Improperly prescribing, administering or dispensing controlled substances xi. Diverting or giving away controlled substances xii. Transmission of disease by improper sterilization procedures xiii. Weight control therapy abuse xiv. Patient neglect and abandonment xv. Failure to comply with a patient’s request to furnish a health record or report required by law. xvi. Unprofessional or dishonorable conduct or gross misconduct xvii. Gross or repeated malpractice or the failure to practice TCAM at a level of care, skill, and treatment which is recognized and acceptable xviii. Exercising influence on a patient in such a manner as to exploit the patient for financial gain of the TCAM practitioner or of a third party which shall include, but not limited to, the promotion or sale of services, goods or appliances. xix. Splitting fees, or promising to pay a portion of a fee or a commission, or accepting a rebate xx. Directly or indirectly engaging in threatening, dishonest, or misleading fee collection techniques xxi. Failure to comply with legal requirement, such as reporting venereal and infectious disease, birth registration, and suspicious death or injury xxii. Permitting, aiding, or abetting unlicensed personnel to perform medical procedures normally restricted to a licensed practitioner xxiii. Conviction of a crime xxiv. Any other act the Ministry of Health by rule may define. TCAM practitioners who do not possess basic medical degree (MBBS, MD, etc.) are prohibited from claiming to be or leading people to understand that they are an allopathic, or conventional medical doctor. TCAM practitioners are also prohibited to prevent any person from being treated by an allopathic physician or improperly influencing any person to abstain from such treatment. References and other sources: i) Federation of State Medical Boards, USA: Guidelines for the use of Complementary and Alternative Therapies in Medical Practice. ii) Legal Medicine, Fourth Edition, American College of Legal Medicine iii) Legal Status of Traditional Medicine and Complementary / Alternative Medicine, WHO iv) Complementary Medicine, New Approach to Good Practice, British Medical Association v) Overview of Legislative Development Concerning Alternative Health Care in the United States, A Research Project of the Fetzer Institute, by David M. Sale, J.D., LL.M. vi) Alternative Medicine, Expanding Medical Horizons, N.I.H, Bethesda, USA vii) Complementary Therapies for Pharmacists, by Steven B Kayne
Compiled and edited by the Office of TCAM, Federal Ministry of Health, UAE For suggestions and comments: Email: ocam@moh.gov.ae Courtesy : http://www.moh.gov.ae
posted by sachin @ 10:16 PM
0 comments
